If people who are protected against one subvariant are also well-protected against others, why would there ever be a surge in a place that already had an Omicron surge (like Europe)? Is it just changes in behavior/regulations combined with immunity fading from vaccines & boosters, and nothing to do with the difference between subvariants at all?
If people who are protected against one subvariant are also well-protected against others, why would there ever be a surge in a place that already had an Omicron surge (like Europe)? Is it just changes in behavior/regulations combined with immunity fading from vaccines & boosters, and nothing to do with the difference between subvariants at all?